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CISI International Certificate in Wealth & Investment Management Sample Questions (Q28-Q33):

NEW QUESTION # 28
An inherent disadvantage with a defined contribution pension scheme is that:

A. Employees always have to contribute more than employers
B. The level of retirement income is not known before retirement
C. Employers never contribute to the scheme
D. Gains within the scheme are subject to capital gains tax

Answer: B

Explanation:
A Defined Contribution (DC) pension scheme is a retirement savings plan where contributions are invested, and the final pension depends on investment performance.
* Why is Option A Correct?
* The final retirement income is uncertain because it depends on investment returns, contribution levels, and annuity rates at retirement.
* Unlike Defined Benefit (DB) schemes, where retirees receive a fixed pension, DC schemes do not guarantee a set payout.
* How Defined Contribution (DC) Schemes Work:
* Contributions are made by employees (and often by employers).
* Funds are invested in stocks, bonds, or mixed assets.
* Upon retirement, the individual may withdraw lump sums, purchase an annuity, or opt for pension drawdown.
* Why Not Other Options?
* B (Employers never contribute) # Incorrect. Many employers do contribute, particularly in workplace pensions (e.g., auto-enrolment in the UK).
* C (Capital gains tax applies) # Incorrect. Pension funds grow tax-free (no CGT on gains).
* D (Employees always contribute more) # Incorrect. Employer contributions vary by scheme- some match employee contributions, others contribute less.
# Reference: UK Pensions Act 2008 (Auto-Enrolment), FCA Pension Regulations, CISI Wealth & Investment Management.

NEW QUESTION # 29
Setting standards for national anti-money laundering (AML) and counter-terrorist financing (CTF) programs and evaluating how effectively member countries have implemented the standards is the role of which of the following?

A. Interpol
B. International Monetary Fund (IMF)
C. National Crime Agency
D. Financial Action Task Force (FATF)

Answer: D

Explanation:
The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) is an intergovernmental organization that sets global AML
/CTF standards and assesses compliance.
* Why is Option C Correct?
* FATF develops recommendations that countries must implement to combat money laundering and terrorist financing.
* It conducts peer reviews and blacklists non-compliant nations.
* Why Not Other Options?
* A (IMF) # The IMF monitors economic stability, not AML enforcement.
* B (Interpol) # Handles criminal investigations, not financial regulations.
* D (National Crime Agency) # The NCA is UK-specific, while FATF is global.
# Reference: FATF Guidelines, CISI Wealth & Investment Management.

NEW QUESTION # 30
In relation to the financial services industry, which one of the following statements regarding the European Union is true?

A. It operates as a single regulator
B. It aims to bring about a single market
C. It delegates systemic risk control to the European Central Bank
D. It has the power of veto over national regulators

Answer: B

Explanation:
* The EU and Financial Services
* The European Union's goal is to establish asingle marketwhere financial services, goods, and capital can move freely between member states.
* This involves harmonizing laws and regulations across countries to reduce barriers to trade and investment.
* Why the Other Options are Incorrect
* A. Single regulator: The EU has no single financial regulator; financial regulation is shared across bodies like ESMA and EBA.
* C. Power of veto: The EU does not override national regulators; instead, it ensures compliance with its directives.
* D. ECB and systemic risk: The ECB handles systemic risk in the Eurozone but not for the entire EU, especially countries outside the Eurozone.
* ICWIM Study Guide, Chapter on Global Financial Markets: Covers the EU's role in creating a single market.
* EU Financial Directives: MiFID and others promote cross-border market access.
ReferencesThus, the correct answer isB. It aims to bring about a single market.

NEW QUESTION # 31
Which index tracking method requires a swap agreement?

A. Stratified Sampling
B. Full replication
C. Synthetic Replication
D. Optimisation

Answer: C

Explanation:
Synthetic replication involves tracking an index using derivatives such as swaps. A swap agreement allows the fund to replicate the index performance without holding the actual underlying assets, reducing transaction costs and increasing efficiency.

NEW QUESTION # 32
An execution-only sale usually means a sale where there is an absence of:

A. Charges
B. Product
C. Guarantee
D. Advice

Answer: D

Explanation:
* Understanding Execution-Only Sales:
* Execution-only sales occur when the client makes a financial transaction without receiving any advice or recommendations from the intermediary.
* The client assumes full responsibility for the decision.
* Elimination of Other Options:
* A: Charges are typically present in execution-only sales.
* C: The product is being sold; the sale cannot occur without it.
* D: Guarantees are unrelated to the advisory process.
References:
* ICWIM Module 4: Focus on financial advice models, including execution-only services.

NEW QUESTION # 33
......

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CISI International Certificate in Wealth & Investment Management Sample Questions (Q28-Q33):

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